1. Lumber is as good as its preparation. When it is dried the process involved
is ___.
A. seasoning C. Lumbering
B. staining D. Logging
2. There
are numerous kinds of saw. The one used for sawing along the grain of wood is
called ____.
A. back saw C. Rip saw
B. cross cut saw D. Turning saw
3. When
the diameter of cylindrical object is to be measured, the tool to be used is
___.
A. ruler C. Pull-push rule
B. caliper D. Meter stick
4. Fastening
materials are important in woodworks. The most common of these materials is ___.
A. dowel C. Screw
B. bolts D. Nails
5. The
smallest division of the metric scale that you can find in the steel rule is
_____.
A. decimeter C. Millimeter
B. centimetre D. meter
6. The
strongest form of wood joint applicable for table legs is ___.
A. miter C. Dado
B. mortise and tenon D. Butt and tap
7. You
are almost finished with your project. One of the procedures below is done
before the application of finishing materials.
A. cutting C. Sanding
B. spraying D. Varnishing
8. What
is the conversion equivalent of one inch to centimeters?
A. 25.4 C. 0.254
B. 2.54 D. 0.0254
9. A
surfaced lumber where four of its sides are smooth or planed is called ____.
A. S3S C. Rough
B. S2S D. S4S
10. In
carpentry, splicing or joining of wood using two side blocks is called ___.
A. Lapping C. Fishing
B. Scarfing D. Jointing
11. A
seasoned lumber is ideal for carpentry works. Which among the following is best
to use?
A. sun dried C. Air dried
B. kiln dried D. Natural dried
12.
There is considerable number of wood joints. The simplest and easiest to make
is ___.
A. Lap joint C. Miter Joint
B. Dado joint D. Butt joint
13. In a
wooden floor system, the major horizontal support member upon which the floor
system is laid is ___.
A. Floor joist C.
Girder
B. Sill D. Header
14. A
type of roof frame consisting series of triangles used to distribute loads and
stiffen the structure of the roof.
A. Girts C. Truss
B. Rafter D. Purlins
15. A
wood product made of three or more veneer slice that are laid one upon the
other and bonded with synthetic resin.
A. Pressed wood C. Particle
wood
B. Plywood D. Soft wood
16.
Which of the following tools is used in checking the squareness of the corners
and flatness of a surface?
A. Trammel point C. Sliding
T-bevel
B. Steel square D. Try
square
17. Find
the total number of board feet of six pieces of lumber with a dimension of 2” x
4” x 12”
A. 8 bd. Ft C. 48 bd. ft.
B. 98 bd. ft. D. 4 bd. Ft.
18.
Horizontal lines are best drawn using this instrument
A. t-square C. Meter stick
B. ruler D. Triangles
19. To
completely describe a cone, sphere, and rectangular pyramid the number of views
needed is ____.
A. one C. Three
B. two D. Six
20. This
line is projected as a shorter line in a drawing.
A. inclined line c. Curve
line
B. vertical line D. Horizontal
line
21.
Geometrical solids are usually drawn in ___.
A. two views C. Six views
B. Four views D. Eight views
22.
These lines are used to indicate the measurement of objects and are represented
by fine dark solid lines.
A. leader lines C. Dimension
lines
B. extension lines D. Center lines
23. If a
drawing has an equal measure then it refers to ____.
A. perspective drawing C. Mechanical drawing
B. isometric drawing D. Oblique drawing
24.
Boxing method is most widely used method of drawing a/an __.
A. isometric view C. Mechanical
view
B. pictorial view D. Perspective
view
25. When
parts that are not seen are represented by series of light dash lines then this
line is classified as ___.
A. reference line C. Section line
B. visible line D. Invisible
line
26. If
all the information needed to complete construction of a product is shown then
this type of mechanical drawing is called__.
A. schematic drawing C. Working drawing
B. orthographic drawing D. Pictorial drawing
27. One
of the best practice of a good draftsman is to NEVER letter without ____.
A. guidelines C. Lettering pens
B. pencil D. Ink
28. If a
drawing has one surface that is parallel to the picture plane then this method
is called ___.
A. oblique drawing C. Perspective
drawing
B. isometric drawing D. Orthographic
drawing
29. This pictorial view is normally seen by the
observer’s eyes. Which one is it?
A. isometric drawing C. Perspective drawing
B. oblique drawing D. Orthographic
drawing
30. A
drawing instrument that serves as guide in drawing vertical and diagonal lines
as in triangles. It is generally used in drawing horizontal lines. Which one is
it?
A. straight rule C. Triangle
B. t-square D. Lettering guide
31. The
fine line used to show clearly the dimension limits is called ___.
A. center line C.
Dimension line
B. Extension line D. Phantom line
32. A
type of section used to emphasize the interior construction of an object
without destroying the continuity of the exterior view.
A. Phantom section or Hidden section C. Revolved section
B. Removed or detailed section D. Full section
33. A
horizontal guide line used to determine the general height of lower case
letters.
A. Base line C. Waist line
B. Cap line D. Drop line
34.
Letters that are composed of uniform width elements are classified as ___.
a. italic letters C. Gothic
letters
b. Text letters D. Roman
letters
35. The
most widely used masonry materials for construction works
A. Ashlar C. Rubble stones
B. Bricks D. Concrete hollow
blocks
36. It
is the masonry material manufactured from clay and other materials
A. stones C. Bricks
B. Adobe D. Course rubbles
37. What
is the tool used to guide the vertical position in laying bricks?
A. plumb bob C. Spirit level
B. Water hose D. String or chord
38. Which
of the following is NOT a requirement to consider in proportioning concrete
mixture?
A. economy C. Strength
B. workability D.
Flexibility
39.
Concrete is said to be workable if it can be molded or deformed without
segregation. This characteristic is known as ___.
A. consistency C. Mobility
B. plasticity D. Workability
40.
Following are factors that regulate the strength of concrete except one . Which
is it?
A. Correct proportion of ingredients
B. Proper method of mixing
C. Adequate protection of concrete during
curing
D. Dropping concrete mixture from
high elevation.
41. What
class of concrete mixture is consisting of 1 bag cement, 2 cu. Ft. Of sand, and
4 cu. Ft. Of gravel or 1:2:4?
A. Class AA C. Class B
B. Class A D. Class C
42.
Which among the following is a surface finishing tool for concrete?
A. crandal C. Float
B. Bolster D. Spade
43.
Bricks are laid where its longer side is exposed to view. This arrangement is
called ___.
A. Header C. Bond
B. Stretcher D. Ashlar
44. In
setting up concrete pavers, what material is used to prevent erosion from
drainage?
a. Filter fabric C. Compacted
gravel
B. Jute sack D. Bed of Sand
45. A
person who installs pipes, fixtures and other apparatus to convey the supply
water in buildings and to dispose and discharge waste water.
A. Carpenter C. Mason
B. Plumber D. Mechanic
46. What
must be installed to prevent siphonage or backflow of the water seal in the
drainage system?
A. vent pipe C. Soil pipe
B. Drain pipe D. Cleanout
47.
Which of the following is NOT required by the National Plumbing Code?
A. Drainage pipe should be inclined
properly for a downward gravity flow of water
B. Drainage pipe should be provided
with adequate cleanout
C. No ventilation pipe is needed
D. All pipe joints must be
well-fitted and tightly connected
48. The
pipe that conveys waste from various fixture other than from the water closet.
A. waste pipe C. Vent pipe
B. soil pipe d. Drain pipe
49. It
is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to prevent the back passage of
air.
A. Loop C. Sewer
B. fixture D. Trap
50. The
tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal fittings like unions and other metal
fittings.
A. Pipe vise C. Wrenches
B. Pliers D. Threader
51. It
is a receptacle or vault used to collect organic waste discharged from the
house sewer.
A. septic tank C. Water
tank
B. manhole D. Waste tank
52. The
semi-liquid substance accumulated at the bottom of the septic tank.
A. scum C. Sludge
B. sediment D. Silt
53. What
is the ideal inclination of a horizontal waste pipe as recommended by the
National Plumbing Code?
A. 2% slope C. 4% slope
B. 3% slope D. 0% slope or level
position
54. For
purposes of troubleshooting in case of stoppage of flow. What must be installed
in the pipe system?
A. vent pipe C. Drain
B. cleanout D. Tee fitting
55. An
underground tunnel that carries off the drainage and waste matter from a home
or town is called __.
A. Drainage system C. Sewerage
B. Fixture D. Sewer
56. The
kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and fixtures is a ____.
A. wye fitting C. Union
fitting
B. Tee fitting D.
Reducer
57. A
fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water pump to prevent backflow of
water.
A. inlet valve C.
Suction valve
B. check valve D. Gate
valve
58. It
is a device installed in water lines that can be closed or opened to allow
installation or troubleshooting of
fixtures
A. check valve C. Gate
valve
B. inlet valve D. Float
valve
59. A
metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller pipe from a larger pipe
A. reducer C. Nipple
B. bushing D. Coupling
60. What
material is used to seal off threaded fittings to avoid leakage?
A. masking tape C. Scotch tape
B. Teflon tape D. Adhesive
gum
61.
Plastic pipes are commonly used in water fixture installation nowadays. Which of
the following is preferred?
A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) C. Unplasticized PVC (uPVC)
B. Chlorinated PVC (CPVC) D. Styrene rubber plastic (SR)
62.
Circuit breakers are used to protect household electrical circuits. What is the
ampacity rating of the breaker used for convenience outlets or general purpose
circuits?
A. 20 ampere C. 15 amperes
B. 30 amperes D. 60 amperes
63. A
form of electricity where the flow of current is always in the same direction
____.
A. voltage C. Alternating current
B. power D. Direct current
64. The
force which opposes and reduces the flow of electrical current is recognized as
_____.
A. power C. Electromagnetic
force
B. resistance D. Frequency
65. A
part of an electric current which converts electrical energy into another form
of energy to do work
A. load C. Source
B. circuit D. Control
66. A
part of an electrical circuit, consist of batteries, generator or a main
electrical power which supplies electricity.
A. control C. Source
B. load D. Voltage
67. What
is the voltage required by an automatic pressure cooker having a resistance of
20 0hms when the current flowing is 8 amperes.
A. 240 volts C. 120 volts
B. 480 volts D. 160 volts
68. A
law that states that current is directly proportional to voltage and inversely
proportional to resistance is known as ____.
A. PEC C. Kirchoff’s law
B. law of resistivity D. Ohm’s Law
69. In
ohm’s law to find the unknown voltage in the circuit, the formula to be used is
___.
A. E=IXR C. I=E/R
B. E=I/R D. E=R/I
70. What
amount of current does a 40-watt fluorescent lamp draw from a 220 volts power
source?
A. 5.5 amperes C. 25.5
amperes
B. 0.18 amperes D. 50.5
amperes
71.
There are several factors involved in electrical wiring installation but the
foremost consideration is ______.
A. cost C. Safety
B. labor D. Function
72. The
standard number or diameter of wires for convenience outlet layout should be
A. No. 12 C. No. 18
B. No. 14 D. No. 10
73. To
comply with the requirements of the Philippine Electrical Code the appropriate
fuse rating for lighting outlet should be ___.
A. 15 amperes C. 60 amperes
B. 30 amperes D. 20 amperes
74.
Planning and designing of electrical wiring plan is being done in order to ___.
A. provide efficient and effective
wiring system of the building
B. maintain quality workmanship
C. avoid overloaded circuit
D. protect the circuit from high
current
75. In a
220- volt power line, three 50 watt incandescent bulbs are connected in
parallel. How many more bulbs will light if one of the bulbs is open?
A. one C.
All
B. two D.
None
76. An
electrical component used to control electrical circuit in two different
locations.
A. four-way switch C. Push button
switch
B. Three-way switch D. Remote controlled
switch
77. In a
simple electrical connection, one of the lines of the source is connected to
___.
A. Terminal 1 of the load C. Terminal 1 of the switch
B. Terminal 2 of the load D. Terminal 1
& 2 of the switch
78.
Which of the following electrical symbols means that there are three wires
running in a line?
A.---- ÇÇÇ---- C.
-------------
B. ---ÇÇÇÇ--- D. S3W
79. To
conserve energy, what kind of lamp should be used in lighting fixtures?
A. incandescent lamp C. Compact fluorescent
lamp
B. mercury lamp D. Neon lamp
80. The
size of electrical wire recommended for installing lighting fixtures
A. No. 12 AWG C. No. 18 AWG
B. No. 10 AWG D. No. 14 AWG
81. In
the electronic symbol of a transistor, the electrode with an arrow is the ____
A. emitter C. Collector
B. base D. Cathode
82. You
will find an electrode nearest the white band on a rectifier. What is it?
A. Anode C. Gate
B. cathode D. Main terminal
83. An
ordinary radio can be tuned to different stations. The electronic component
responsible for this function is the ____
A. tuning capacitor C. IF transformer
B. oscillator coil D. Detector
diode
84. If
the transistor is an NPN type the base is ____.
A. negative & positive C. Positive
B. negative D. Common
85.
Printed on the dial of an AM radio is an RF band covering _____.
A. 76khz – 90Mhz C. 16Hz – 20kHz
B. 88 – 108 Mhz D. 535 –
1605kHz
86. Volt
Ohm Milliameter or VOM, is a measuring instrument. Which of the following VOM
function uses its internal battery?
A. DC milliameter C. DC voltmeter
B. Ohmmeter D. AC voltmeter
87. When
a diode is tested and the reading is zero, it means the diode is ____.
A. shorted C. Leaky
B. Open D. Good
88. If
the arrow of a transistor symbol is pointing inward it tells us that the
transistor is:
A. NPN C. Bipolar
B. PNP D. Injunction
89.
Working efficiently is a good work habit. Tinning the tip of a soldering iron
refers to:
A. Cleaning the tip with a sand
paper C. Cutting the tip
B. Making the tip pointed D. Applying flux to the tip
90. The
condition of a loud speaker is tested more accurately using one of the ranges
listed below
A. R x 1K C. R x 1
B. R x 10 D. R x 10K
91. One
of the following is a non-polarized electronic equipment
A. transistor C. Diode
B. resistor D. Electrolytic capacitor
92. A
schematic diagram shows the components of an electronic circuit by means of
___.
A. symbol C. Physical appearance
B. construction D. Linear
appearance
93. The
voltage rating found in as capacitor is called ____
A. peak-reverse voltage C. Blow-up voltage
B. working voltage D. Breakdown
voltage
94.
There are various types of diodes. The diode that acts as a regulator is the
___.
A. silicon diode C. Light
emitting diode
B. tunnel diode D. Zener
diode
95.
Which of the following is the value and tolerance respectively of a resistor
coded with Yellow-Violet-Black-Gold?
A. 47 ohms, 5% C. 4.7 ohms,
5%
B.
0.47 ohms, 5% D.
470 ohms, 5%
96. A diode is an electronic part that at all
times is expected to do one of the following functions. Which one is it?
A. allow current to flow in both
directions
B. multiply voltage
C. allow current to flow in one
direction only
D. not allow any current flow
97. The
type of current whose amplitude drops to zero periodically and is produced in
rectifier is known as
A. Pulsating Direct Current C. Varying Direct Current
B. Damped Alternating Current D. Saw tooth wave
98. The
common cause of an erratic or distorted sound of a transistor radio is a
defective __.
A. amplifier C. Antenna
B. volume control D. Tuner
99. An
appliance with 110 Volts AC supply is accidentally plugged to a 220 volts Ac
outlet. What component is usually destroyed?
A. Switch C. Line fuse
B. AC plug D. Power transformer
100.
What happens to a transistor radio when batteries are connected in reverse
polarity?
A. it will not operate
B. it will operate for a while and
eventually stops
C. it will erratically operate
D. it will operate normally
101.
What do you call the activity being undertaken in the factory that results to a
product?
A. packaging C. Technology
B. dressing D. Manufacturing
102.
What do you call the proof of equality of the entire debit and the credit
balances in the ledger at the end of a period of time?
A. income statement C. Trial balance
B. balance diet D. Footing
103.
What kind of business relies on sales as the principal income?
A. investment C. Manufacturing
B. trading D. Service
104. What
quality an entrepreneur must possess is characterized by believing in his
ability to get things done and overcome obstacles?
A. competency C. Perseverance
B. decision making D. Self-confidence
105.
Aside from planning on how to hire employees, what else is a task of
management?
A. how to feed them C. How to keep them
in the company
B. how to make them pay taxes D. How to be productive
106. In
what part of a business plan can you find a study of the business competitors,
the supply and demand of the product, the marketing program, and projected
sales?
A. market feasibility C. Financial
feasibility
B. production plan D. Organizational
plan
107. Mr.
Santos is an entrepreneur who needs to pay taxes and other accounts payable
before the end of the year. This should be reflected in his financial statement
as
A. asset C. Credit
B. liabilities D.
Debit
108.
What theory believes that the government should not interfere in economic
activities
A. Ricardian Theory C. Keynesian Theory
B. Laissez Faire D. Scientific
management theory
109. The
term used to describe the ability to create a new product and find ways and
means to improve it is known as
A. management C. Ability
B. judgement D. Creativity
110.
Every costumer should be protected against the marketing goods hazardous to
health. This is right __.
A. to safety C. To be informed
B. to be heard D. To
choose
111.
Production of goods and services through entrepreneurship paves the way for a
healthy competition and encourage ___.
A. production and more quality
products
B. production of less quality
products
C. high prices
D. profit
112.
Modernization of technology and streamlining of functions lead to ___.
A. development C. Security
B. diffusion D. Responsibility
113. If
an entrepreneur accepts full responsibility for problems in the completion of a
job for customers then he is ___.
A. committed worker C. Hard worker
B. risk taker D. Salesman
114. In
management, “putting the right person in the right job” is a ___
A. behavioural approach C. Contingency approach
B. situational approach D. Scientific management
approach
115. The
theory that explains that there are two extreme assumptions management makes
about people.
A. Modern Operational Management C. Theory A and Theory B
B. Scientific Management theory D. Theory X and Theory Y
116.
Quality control refers to the firm’s evaluation of its ____
A. overall performance C. Employee’s performance
B. operational control D. Organizational
control
117. If
an entrepreneur acts to do things that meet or even exceed existing standards
of excellence then he is considered to be ____.
A. hardworker C. Committed worker
B. risk taker D. Goal setter
118.
Profit is a concrete indicator of how well an entrepreneur has managed his ____
A. business C. Affairs
B. sales D. Credits
119. If
a lot of unknown and uncontrollable factors affect the success or failure of a
firm then an entrepreneur should be competent in ______.
A. making decision C. Introducing
innovation
B. seeking opportunity D. Planning ahead
120.
Accounting refers to the whole process of recording and interpreting results of
___
A. business transactions C. Capital outflow
B. means of production D. Stock market
121. The
book of original entry which contains records of transaction in their
chronological order, accounts to be debited and credited and their amount is
___.
A. journal C. Ledger
B. balance sheet D. Columnar
sheet
122. The
process of utilizing land, labor and capital to create market and produce new
goods and services
A. entrepreneurship C. Proprietorship
B. partnership D. Salesman
123. The
difference between the actual cost and the retail price is
A. mark up C. Cost
B. profit D. Selling price
124. The
probable problems that a business and entrepreneur faces are:
A. weakness C. Strengths
B. Opportunities D. Threats
125.
Reviewing at any point of the business period the strength and weaknesses of
the venture is referred to a
A. monitoring and evaluating C. Opportunity seeking
B. risk taking D. SWOT
analysis
126.
Overcooking fish is a common problem because fish contains very little
A. iron C. Carbohydrate
B. collagen D. Iodide
127.
Which of the following is not an acidic food ingredient?
A. egg white C. Sour cream
B. buttermilk D. Lime juice
128.
When comparing quick cake mixes with conventional cake mixes, we note that
quick cake mixes
A. have more eggs C. Have a lower
sugar/flour ratio
B. have a higher sugar/flour ratio D. Have much less fat
129. To retard
ripening in fruits it would be useful to
store them in an atmosphere that was
A. high in oxygen C. Low in
oxygen, high in carbon dioxide
B. low in carbon dioxide D. Low in carbon dioxide,
high in helium
130. The “wake-up” temperature for dry active
yeast is in the range
A.55-60 °F C.
105-110 °F
B. 85-95 °F D.
130-140 °F
131.
Which of the following is not a promoter of oxidative rancidity in unsaturated
cooking fats?
A. water C. Metal ions such as
copper and iron
B. heat D. Light
132. Increased
temperatures will not increase solubility for which of the following food
substances?
A. carbon dioxide C. Salt
B. sugar D. Baking soda
133. In
crystalline candies, to produce a smooth texture, it is desirable to have what
size sugar crystals?
A. very large C. Large
B. small D. Medium
134.
Garlic and onions (the sulphur-containing vegetables) contain which of the
following phytochemicals?
A. isoflavones C.
Flavanoids
B. allicin D. Terpenes
135.
Lycopene gives which color to vegetables?
A. Red C. White
B. Yellow D. Green
136.
When you chop onions, your eyes can burn
because a chemical reaction produces
A. Sulfuric Acid C. Nitric
Acid
B. Hydrochloric Acid D. Acetic Acid
137. The
best way to eliminate the soggy crust problem in a one crust, uncooked filing
pie such as apple pie is to
A. coat the crust with egg white or
whole egg and bake briefly to coagulate
B. bake crust and filling separately
C. bake at high temperature (450 °F) initially, then reduce temperature to 325 °F to finish baking
138. The
rate of heat transfer into and out of any material is governed principally by
A. specific heat C. Density
B. mass D. Volatility
139. For
serving and storage purposes, hot food should be kept above ____ °F and cold food should be kept below ____ °F.
A. 120,80 C. 140,60
B. 130,70 D. 135,41
140. How
does one “sear” a piece of meat?
A. Grill it slowly on low heat
B. Shave the skin carefully using a
paring knife and then simmer it in oil
C. Brown the meat’s surface with
intense initial heat
D. Brown the meat with sugar
141. Which
of the following collars is drafted and cut together with the front bodice
pattern?
A. baby collar C.
Continuous collar
B. sports collar D.
Trubenized collar
142. A
skirt with at least two tapered sections is the
A. one-piece skirt C. Skirted skirt
B. gored skirt D. A-line
skirt
143. A
button should be sewn immediately as soon as it loosens. Which of the following
is the first step in sewing on buttons?
A. remove the pins and bring needle
and thread through fabric
B. take several stitches over the
pin and through the fabric
C. using double thread, take one or
two small stitches at the point where the button will be attached
D. hold a pin across the top of the
button and take a stitch over it.
144. The
neckline area is often the most decorative part of the dress. It is close to
the face and is easily noticed before other parts of the garments. What kind of
neckline is recommended for a round face?
A. Sabrina C. Square
B. round D. V-shape
145.
Which of the following elements is most prominent in the composition of human
hair?
A. Carbon C. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen D. Sulfur
146.
What is the proper term for the practice of dividing the hair into smaller,
more workable pieces for the purpose of control?
A. splitting C. Texturizing
B. bunching D. Sectioning
147.
During an analysis procedure, cleansing milk is appied to the skin using:
A. Download circular motion C. Upward circular movements
B. Rounded strong movements D. Outward movements
148. A deep rubbing massage movement pressure is
applied to the skin while moving over an underlying structure is
A. Kneading C. Fiction
B. Tapotement D. Rubbing
149.
Which of the following is not one of the layers that compose strands of hair?
A. Dermal Papilla C. Cuticle
B. Cortex D. Medulla
150. A liquid or cream used to
remove excess tissue around the nails is ____.
A.
cuticle pusher C.
Cuticle scissors
B.
cuticle nipper D.
Cuticle remover
Answer key:
1.
A
2.
B
3.
B
4.
A
5.
C
6.
B
7.
C
8.
B
9.
D
10.
A
11.
B
12.
C
13.
A
14.
C
15.
B
16.
B
17.
A
18.
A
19.
D
20.
A
